UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Exam : 28 May, 2023
1. Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake.
2. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake.
3. Meandering of Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
The correct answer is (a) Only one.
Explanation: Out of the given statements:
- Statement 1 is correct. Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. Krishna River does not directly feed Kolleru Lake.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. The meandering of Gandak River does not form Kanwar Lake.
Therefore, only one statement out of the three given is correct.
Port : Well known as
1. Kamaraj Port: First major port in India registered as a company.
2. Mundra Port: Largest privately owned port in India.
3. Visakhapatnam Port: Largest container port in India.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
The correct answer is (b) Only two pairs.
Explanation: Out of the given pairs:
- Pair 1 is correct. Kamaraj Port is the first major port in India registered as a company.
- Pair 2 is correct. Mundra Port is the largest privately owned port in India.
- Pair 3 is incorrect. Visakhapatnam Port is not the largest container port in India.
Therefore, only two pairs out of the three given are correctly matched.
1. Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus)
2. Mahua (Madhuca indica)
3. Teak (Tectona grandis)
How many of the above are deciduous trees?
The correct answer is (b) Only two.
Explanation: Out of the given trees:
- Jackfruit is a deciduous tree.
- Mahua is a deciduous tree.
- Teak is not a deciduous tree.
Therefore, only two trees out of the three given are deciduous.
1. India has more arable area than China.
2. The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China.
3. The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China.
How many of the above statements are correct?
The correct answer is (b) Only two.
Explanation: Out of the given statements:
- Statement 1 is correct. India does not have more arable area than China.
- Statement 2 is correct. The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is not higher than that in China.
Therefore, only two statements out of the three given are correct.
The correct answer is (d) Rann of Kutch.
Explanation: The Rann of Kutch is an example of extensive marshland formed due to repeated falls in sea level.
The correct answer is (d) Titanium.
Explanation: Ilmenite and rutile, found in coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of titanium.
The correct answer is (c) The Democratic Republic of the Congo.
Explanation: About three-fourths of the world's cobalt, required for batteries in electric motor vehicles, is produced by the Democratic Republic of the Congo.
The correct answer is (a) Cameroon.
Explanation: Cameroon is a part of the Congo Basin, which is a large tropical rainforest basin in Central Africa.
1. Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges.
2. Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of the Satpura Range.
3. Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost part of the Western Ghats.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
The correct answer is (d) None.
Explanation: Out of the given statements:
- Statement 1 is incorrect. Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of the Vindhya and Satpura Ranges.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. Biligirirangan Hills do not constitute the easternmost part of the Satpura Range.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. Seshachalam Hills are not the southernmost part of the Western Ghats.
Therefore, none of the statements given are correct.
1. East-West Corridor under the Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat.
2. Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar.
3. Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China.
How many of the above statements are correct?
The correct answer is (d) None.
Explanation: Out of the given statements:
- Statement 1 is incorrect. The East-West Corridor connects Silchar and Porbandar, not Dibrugarh and Surat.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. The Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur, India, and Mae Sot in Thailand, not Chiang Mai.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. The Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Kolkata in West Bengal with Kunming in China, not Varanasi.
Therefore, none of the statements given are correct.
Statement-1: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production.
Statement-2: Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
The correct answer is (c) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-2 is incorrect.
Explanation:
- Statement-1 is correct. Despite having uranium deposits, India relies heavily on coal for its electricity production.
- Statement-2 is incorrect. Uranium enriched to the extent of at least 60% is not specifically required for the production of electricity. It depends on the type of reactor and technology used.
Statement-1: Marsupials are not naturally found in India.
Statement-2: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
The correct answer is (c) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-2 is incorrect.
Explanation:
- Statement-1 is correct. Marsupials are not naturally found in India.
- Statement-2 is incorrect. Marsupials can thrive in various environments, including grasslands, forests, and deserts. The absence of predators alone does not determine their presence or absence.
The correct answer is (a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature.
Explanation: The Invasive Species Specialist Group, which develops the Global Invasive Species Database, belongs to The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
1. Lion-tailed Macaque
2. Malabar Civet
3. Sambar Deer
How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?
The correct answer is (b) Only two.
Explanation:
- Lion-tailed Macaque is diurnal, meaning it is active during the day.
- Malabar Civet is generally nocturnal or most active after sunset.
- Sambar Deer is crepuscular, meaning it is most active during twilight periods (dawn and dusk).
Therefore, only two animals out of the three given are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset.
The correct answer is (c) Honeybees.
Explanation: Honeybees perform the waggle dance to communicate the direction and distance to a food source to other members of their colony.
1. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties.
2. Some mushrooms have psychoactive properties.
3. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties.
4. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties.
How many of the above statements are correct?
The correct answer is (d) All four.
Explanation: All four statements are correct. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties, psychoactive properties, insecticidal properties, and bioluminescent properties.
1. They build nests by making burrows in the ground.
2. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground.
3. They are omnivorous.
How many of the above statements are correct?
The correct answer is (a) Only one.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct. Indian squirrels build nests by making burrows in the ground.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. Indian squirrels do not store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. Indian squirrels are herbivorous, not omnivorous.
Therefore, only one statement out of the three given is correct.
1. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water.
2. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water.
3. Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environments with a pH below 3.
How many of the above statements are correct?
The correct answer is (c) All three.
Explanation: All three statements are correct. Some microorganisms can tolerate extreme temperatures and acidic environments, allowing them to grow in environments beyond the boiling point and freezing point of water, as well as highly acidic conditions.
The correct answer is (b) Orangutan.
Explanation: Orangutans have been observed using tools, such as sticks, to scrape insects from holes in trees or logs of wood as a form of tool-assisted foraging.
1. Aerosols
2. Foam agents
3. Fire retardants
4. Lubricants
In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?
The correct answer is (c) Only three.
Explanation: Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are commonly used in the making of aerosols, foam agents, and fire retardants. They are not typically used in the production of lubricants.
Statement-1: Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InviTs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable.
Statement-2: InviTs are recognized as borrowers under the 'Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002'.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
The correct answer is (d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-2 is correct.
Explanation:
- Statement-1 is incorrect. The interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InviTs) is taxable, not exempted from tax.
- Statement-2 is correct. InviTs are recognized as borrowers under the 'Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002'.
Statement-1: In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes.
Statement-2: Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
The correct answer is (a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are correct and Statement-2 is the correct explanation for Statement-1.
Explanation:
- Statement-1 is correct. Many Central Banks worldwide have carried out interest rate hikes in the post-pandemic recent past.
- Statement-2 is also correct. Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices through monetary policy means.
Statement-1: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change.
Statement-2: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
The correct answer is (c) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-2 is incorrect.
Explanation:
- Statement-1 is correct. Carbon markets are expected to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change.
- Statement-2 is incorrect. Carbon markets do not transfer resources from the private sector to the State. Instead, they involve trading of carbon credits and allowances among entities to incentivize emission reductions.
The correct answer is (a) Conducting 'Open Market Operations'.
Explanation: Sterilization refers to the actions taken by the central bank to offset the impact of its intervention in the foreign exchange market. One of the activities involved in sterilization is conducting 'Open Market Operations' by the central bank, which involves buying or selling government securities to manage liquidity in the economy.
1. Government Bond Market
2. Call Money Market
3. Treasury Bill Market
4. Stock Market
How many of the above are included in capital markets?
The correct answer is (b) Only two.
Explanation: Capital markets are financial markets where long-term securities like stocks and bonds are bought and sold. Among the given options, the Government Bond Market and Stock Market are included in the capital markets. The Call Money Market and Treasury Bill Market are part of the money markets, which deal with short-term funds.
The correct answer is (b) Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations.
Explanation: The concept of 'Small Farmer Large Field' refers to the collaborative efforts of small and marginal farmers in an area. They organize themselves into groups, often through cooperatives or collectives, to collectively cultivate a larger field by pooling their land and resources. This allows them to benefit from economies of scale and engage in synchronized and harmonized agricultural operations to enhance productivity and profitability.
1. The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia aoyssinica) seeds.
2. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop.
3. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking.
How many of the above statements are correct?
The correct answer is (c) All three.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct. The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia aoyssinica) seeds.
- Statement 2 is correct. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop in India.
- Statement 3 is correct. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking.
1. Brand recognition
2. Inventory
3. Intellectual property
4. Mailing list of clients
How many of the above are considered intangible investments?
The correct answer is (c) Only three.
Explanation: Intangible investments are investments in assets that do not have a physical presence. Among the given options, brand recognition, intellectual property, and mailing list of clients are considered intangible investments. Inventory, on the other hand, refers to tangible assets.
1. Demographic performance
2. Forest and ecology
3. Governance reforms
4. Stable government
5. Tax and fiscal efforts
For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?
The correct answer is (b) Only three.
Explanation: The Fifteenth Finance Commission used demographic performance, forest and ecology, governance reforms, and stable government as criteria other than population, area, and income distance for the horizontal tax devolution. Tax and fiscal efforts were not included as separate criteria in this context.
1. Affordable housing
2. Mass rapid transport
3. Health care
4. Renewable energy
On how many of the above does UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus for its investments?
The correct answer is (c) Only three.
Explanation: The UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focuses on investments in affordable housing, mass rapid transport, and health care. Renewable energy is not specifically mentioned as one of the sectors of focus for this initiative.
The correct answer is (c) Fair application of law.
Explanation: Due Process of Law refers to the fair application of law, ensuring that legal procedures are followed and individuals are treated justly within the legal system.
Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.
Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
The correct answer is (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
Explanation: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for day-to-day administration. The Prisons Act, 1894, explicitly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments, supporting Statement-I.
The correct answer is (c) It defines and limits the powers of government.
Explanation: The Chief purpose of a constitution is to define and limit the powers of the government, establishing the framework for the functioning of the state and safeguarding individual rights and freedoms.
The correct answer is (a) 1st Amendment.
Explanation: The 1st Amendment to the Indian Constitution was enacted in 1951 and is widely believed to have been passed to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights by restricting their scope and providing certain exceptions and limitations.
1. The National Commission for Backward Classes
2. The National Human Rights Commission
3. The National Law Commission
4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
How many of the above are constitutional bodies?
The correct answer is (a) Only one.
Explanation: Among the given organizations/bodies, only the National Commission for Backward Classes is a constitutional body. The other three organizations are statutory bodies created by specific acts of Parliament.
1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.
2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.
How many of the above statements are correct?
The correct answer is (d) None.
Explanation: None of the statements are correct. Statement 1 is incorrect because the acts done by the President of India before the declaration of the election being void remain valid. Statement 2 is incorrect because the election for the post of President cannot be postponed due to the dissolution of Legislative Assemblies. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Constitution does not prescribe specific time limits for the President to declare assent to a Bill.
1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.
How many of the above statements are correct?
The correct answer is (a) Only one.
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. The Lok Sabha can amend or reject the Finance Bill transmitted to the Rajya Sabha. However, Statement 2 is incorrect. The Lok Sabha can amend or reject the Money Bill transmitted to the Rajya Sabha, but the Rajya Sabha cannot make amendments and can only make recommendations. Statement 3 is also incorrect because a joint sitting of both houses is not required for either Money Bill or Finance Bill in case of disagreement. The decision of the Lok Sabha prevails in such cases.
Once the Central Government notifies an area as a 'Community Reserve',
1. the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest.
2. hunting is not allowed in such area.
3. people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce.
4. people of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices.
How many of the above statements are correct?
The correct answer is (c) Only three.
Explanation: Among the given statements, only statement 3 is correct. When an area is notified as a 'Community Reserve' by the Central Government, hunting is not allowed, and people of the area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce. However, the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State does not become the governing authority of such a forest, and traditional agricultural practices are not explicitly mentioned.
1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
The correct answer is (b) Only two.
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. The notification of an area as a Scheduled Area within a State is done through an Order of the Governor of that State, not the President. Statement 2 is correct. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District, and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block. Statement 3 is also incorrect. The Chief Ministers are not required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas; it is the Governors who submit such reports.
Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for the maintenance of the efficiency of administration.
Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term 'efficiency of administration'.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
The correct answer is (c) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
Explanation: Statement-I is incorrect. The Supreme Court of India has not held that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335. However, Statement-II is correct. Article 335 of the Constitution of India does define the term 'efficiency of administration' as one of the factors to be considered while making reservations.
Solution: Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghikas, was located in Andhra.
1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin.
2. Stupa was generally a repository of relics.
3. Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Solution: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The concept of Stupa is indeed Buddhist in origin, and Stupa was generally a repository of relics. Statement 3 is incorrect as Stupa was primarily a religious structure and not specifically votive or commemorative in Buddhist tradition.
Solution: Korkai, Poompuhar, and Muchiri were well known as ports in ancient South India.
Solution: The practice of 'Vattakirutal' mentioned in Sangam poems refers to a king defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by starving himself to death.
1. Hoysala
2. Gahadavala
3. Kakatiya
4. Yadava
How many of the above dynasties established their kingdoms in the early eighth century AD?
Solution: None of the above dynasties established their kingdoms in the early eighth century AD.
Literary work : Author
1. Deuichandragupta : Bilhana
2. Hammira-Mahakauya : Nayachandra Suri
3. Milinda-panha : Nagatjuna
4. Nitiuakyamrita : Somadeva Suri
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Solution: Three of the above pairs are correctly matched:
1. Deuichandragupta : Bilhana
2. Hammira-Mahakauya : Nayachandra Suri
3. Milinda-panha : Nagatjuna
The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of which one of the following religious sects of ancient India?
Solution: The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of Jainism, where souls are believed to exist not only in animal and plant life but also in rocks, running water, and various other natural objects.
Solution: Devaraya I, a ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire, constructed a large dam across the Tungabhadra River and a canal-cum-aqueduct several kilometers long from the river to the capital city.
Solution: Bahadur Shah, a ruler of medieval Gujarat, surrendered Diu to the Portuguese.
Solution: The Governor General of Bengal was designated as the Governor General of India by the Charter Act of 1833.
1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments.
2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women.
3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.
4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Solution: Statement 2 and 3 are correct. Janani Suraksha Yojana aims to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women and promote institutional delivery among them.
1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents, and pregnant women.
2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth.
3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents.
4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Solution: Statement 3 and 4 are correct. Under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy, periodic deworming is provided to children and adolescents, and non-nutritional causes of anaemia are addressed in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis.
1. Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircraft.
2. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution: Statement 1 is correct. Carbon fibres are indeed used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircraft. Statement 2 is incorrect as carbon fibres can be recycled.
1. Detection of car crash/collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously.
2. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive.
3. Detection of the tilt of the smartphone which results in the rotation of the display between portrait and landscape mode.
In how many of the above actions is the function of an accelerometer required?
Solution: The function of an accelerometer is required in all three actions mentioned to detect car crash/collision, accidental free fall of a laptop, and the tilt of a smartphone.
1. Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed.
2. Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate.
3. Biofilters increase phosphorus as a nutrient for fish in water.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Solution: Statement 2 is correct. Biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture System convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate. Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect as biofilters primarily remove ammonia and other nitrogenous compounds, not uneaten fish feed, and do not specifically increase phosphorus as a nutrient for fish in water.
Objects in space : Description
1. Cepheids : Giant clouds of dust and gas in space
2. Nebulae : Stars which brighten and dim periodically
3. Pulsars : Neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Solution: None of the above pairs are correctly matched:
1. Cepheids are actually stars which brighten and dim periodically, not giant clouds of dust and gas in space.
2. Nebulae are giant clouds of dust and gas in space, not stars that brighten and dim periodically.
3. Pulsars are indeed neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse.
Solution: Japan has its own Satellite Navigation System.
1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight.
2. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fueled intercontinental ballistic missile.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution: Neither of the statements is correct. Ballistic missiles are rocket-powered throughout their flights, not jet-propelled at subsonic speeds. Agni-V is an intercontinental ballistic missile, not a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile, not a solid-fueled intercontinental ballistic missile.
1. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world.
2. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution.
3. There is no known safe level of exposure to mercury.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution: All three statements are correct. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution, coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution, and there is no known safe level of exposure to mercury.
1. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion.
2. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation.
3. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution: All three statements are correct. Green hydrogen can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion, blended with natural gas for heat or power generation, and used in hydrogen fuel cells to run vehicles.
1. Bulgaria
2. Czech Republic
3. Hungary
4. Latvia
5. Lithuania
6. Romania
How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine?
Solution: Hungary and Romania share a land border with Ukraine.
Solution:
Statement 1: The soil in tropical rainforests is rich in nutrients.
Statement 2: The high temperature and moisture of tropical rainforests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Solution: Statement 1 is incorrect. The soil in tropical rainforests is not necessarily rich in nutrients. However, Statement 2 is correct. The high temperature and moisture in tropical rainforests do cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly, leading to a rapid recycling of nutrients.
Statement 1: The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter.
Statement 2: The specific heat of water is more than that of the land surface.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Solution:
1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves.
2. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation, whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution: Both statements are correct. In a seismograph, P waves (primary waves) are the fastest seismic waves and are recorded earlier than S waves (secondary waves). In P waves, particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation, while in S waves, particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation.
1. None of them uses seawater.
2. None of them is set up in a water-stressed district.
3. None of them is privately owned.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution: None of the statements are correct. Some coal-based thermal power plants in India do use seawater for cooling, some are indeed set up in water-stressed districts, and some may be privately owned.
Solution: The 'Wolbachia method' is used for controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes. Wolbachia is a type of bacterium that can be introduced into mosquito populations to reduce their ability to transmit certain viruses, such as dengue and Zika.
1. Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively.
2. Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime.
3. Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters.
How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration?
Solution: All three activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration. Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands, increasing the alkalinity of oceans, and capturing carbon dioxide and storing it in abandoned mines are all strategies aimed at reducing atmospheric carbon dioxide levels and mitigating climate change.
Solution: 'Aerial metagenomics' refers to the collection of DNA samples from the air in a habitat at one go. It involves analyzing the genetic material present in the air to study the biodiversity and genetic diversity of microbial communities, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi.
Solution: 'Microsatellite DNA' is used for studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna. Microsatellites, also known as short tandem repeats (STRs), are repeating sequences of DNA that vary in length between individuals. They are commonly used as molecular markers to assess genetic diversity and analyze population structures in evolutionary studies of animals and plants.
1. According to the 'Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006', the 'medium enterprises' are those with investments in plant and machinery between ₹15 crore and ₹25 crore.
2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution: Only statement 2 is correct. According to the MSMED Act, 2006, the categorization of 'medium enterprises' is based on investments in plant and machinery, but the specific range mentioned in statement 1 is incorrect. Additionally, not all bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. Only certain types of loans meeting the specified criteria are classified under the priority sector.
1. It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using the US dollar or SWIFT system.
2. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it, such as a timeframe for spending it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution:
Solution: In the context of finance, the term 'beta' refers to a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock or investment relative to changes in the overall stock market. It is a measure of systematic risk or volatility.
1. The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived.
2. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes.
3. The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution: Only 2 statement are correct. Statement 2 and Stament 3 are correct. statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement-1: India's public sector healthcare system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive, and rehabilitative care.
Statement-2: Under India's decentralized approach to healthcare delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Solution:
Statement-1: According to the United Nations' 'World Water Development Report, 2022', India extracts more than a quarter of the world's groundwater withdrawal each year.
Statement-2: India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world's groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of the world's population living in its territory.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Solution: Statement-1 is correct. According to the United Nations' 'World Water Development Report, 2022', India does extract more than a quarter of the world's groundwater withdrawal annually.
Statement-2 is incorrect. While India does face significant challenges in meeting the drinking water and sanitation needs of its population, it does not need to extract more than a quarter of the world's groundwater each year specifically to fulfill these requirements. The groundwater extraction in India is influenced by various factors beyond the direct proportion of population served.
1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, the confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution: Only Statement 1 is correct
Solution: The country suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages, and which experienced a severe famine in the recent past, is Somalia.
1. In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol.
2. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit-sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution: Both statements are correct.
Statement-1: In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) at the local level play a crucial role in the implementation of the Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization (ABS). They are responsible for ensuring compliance with the provisions of the Nagoya Protocol at the local level.
Statement-2: The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions related to determining access to biological resources and associated traditional knowledge, as well as determining benefit-sharing arrangements. They can levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within their jurisdiction to ensure fair and equitable sharing of benefits.
1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of the vote of each MLA of that State.
3. The value of the vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
4. The value of the vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to the total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution: Only statement 1 is correct.
Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.
Solution: Option A is correct. Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess, and Walter Elliot were associated with archaeological excavations in Indian history.
Site : Well known for
1. Besnagar : Shaivite cave shrine
2. Bhaja : Buddhist cave shrine
3. Sittanavasal : Jain cave shrine
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Solution: Options B is correct. Bhaja is a well-known Buddhist cave shrine
Statement-1 :
7th August is declared as the National Handloom Day.
Statement-2 :
It was in 1905 that the Swadeshi Movement was launched on the same day.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above· statements?
Solution: Option A is correct. Statement-1 is correct, and 7th August is declared as National Handloom Day. Statement-2 provides the correct explanation that the Swadeshi Movement was launched on the same day in 1905.
Statement-1 :
One of the standard the National Flag of 600 mm x 400 mm .
Statement-2:
The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3 : 2.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Solution: Option D is correct. Statement-1 is incorrect, but Statement-2 is correct. The standard size of the National Flag is 900 mm x 600 mm, but the ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag is 3:2.
Statement-1 :
The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.
Statement-2 :
On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India· set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft ·Constitution of India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Solution: Option C is correct. as the Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens. On 26th August 1947, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.
Statement-1 :
Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value.
Statement-2 :
Switzerland has the second largest gold reserves in the world.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Solution: Option C is correct. Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value . Germany has the second-largest gold reserves in the world. first is United states.
Statement-1 :
Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the Trade and Technology Council'.
Statement-2 :
The USA and the EU claim that through this they are trying to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Solution: Option C is correct.
Statement-1 :
India accounts for 3·2% of global export of goods.
Statement-2 :
Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India's 'Production-linked Incentive' scheme.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Solution: Option D is correct. India accounts for around 2% of global export of goods, not 3.2% (Statement-1 is incorrect). However, Statement-2 is correct, as many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India's 'Production-linked Incentive' scheme.
The 'Stability and Growth Pact' of the European Union is a treaty that
1. limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union
2. makes the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilities
3. enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution: Option A is correct. The Stability and Growth Pact of the European Union is a treaty that limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union. The other statements are incorrect as the Pact does not make countries share infrastructure facilities or technologies.
1. Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for international migration, the 'Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)'.
2. The objectives and commitments · stated in the GCM are binding on the UN member countries.
3 . The GCM addresses internal migration or internally displaced people also in its objectives and commitments.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution: Option D is correct. None of the statements are correct. The first statement is incorrect as not all countries of the United Nations have adopted the Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration. The second statement is incorrect as the objectives and commitments stated in the GCM are not binding on UN member countries. The third statement is incorrect as the GCM primarily addresses international migration, not internal migration or internally displaced people.
1. Home Guards are raised under the Home. Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security.
3. To prevent infiltration on .the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution: The correct answer is option B. Statement 1 and 2 are correct. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government, and their role is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security. However, statement 3 is incorrect as the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions are not raised in all states.
Action : The Act under which it is covered
1. Unauthorized wearing : The Official Secrets of police or military Act, 1923 uniforms
2. Knowingly misleading : The Indian Evior otherwise inter- dence Act, 1872 fering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties·
3. Celebratory gunfire : The Arms (Amendwhich can endanger ment) Act, 2019 the personal safety of others
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Solution:
Regions often mentioned in news : Reason for being in news
1. North Kivu and Ituri : War between Annenia and Azerbaijan
2. Nagomo-Karabakh : Insurgency in Mozambique
3. Kherson and Zaporizhzhia : Dispute between Israel and Lebanon
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Solution:
Statement-1 :
Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States.
Statement-2 :
The 'Arab Peace Initiative' mediated by Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and Arab League.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Solution: The correct answer is option C. Statement 1 is correct, as Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab states. However, statement 2 is incorrect, as the 'Arab Peace Initiative' mediated by Saudi Arabia was not signed by Israel and the Arab League.
1. Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award : For the most spectacular and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over period of last four years
2. Aljuna Award : For the lifetime achievement by a sportsperson
3. Dronacharya Award : To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams
4. Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar : To recognize the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Solution: The correct answer is option B. Only two pairs are correctly matched. Major Dhyan Chand is associated with the Khel Ratna Award, which is for the most outstanding performance by a sportsperson over a period of the last four years. However, the Aljuna Award is not for lifetime achievement, and the Dronacharya Award is not for sportspersons or teams. The Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar is for recognizing the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement.
1. It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India.
2. The official mascot was named Thambi'.
3. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup.
4. The trophy for the winning team in the women's section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Solution: The correct answer is option B.
Area of conflict mentioned in news : Country where it is located
1. Donbas : Syria
2. Kachin : Ethiopia
3. Tigray : North Yemen
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Solution:
Solution: The correct answer is option D. Chad, Guinea, Mali, and Sudan caught international attention for successful coups.
1. Fertilizer plants
2. Oil refineries
3. Steel plants
Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing how many of the above industries?
Solution: The correct answer is option C. All three heavy industries, namely fertilizer plants, oil refineries, and steel plants, are expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing through the use of green hydrogen.
1. The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss the international economic and financial issues.
2. Digital public infrastructure is one· of India's G-20 priorities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution: The correct answer is option C. Both statements are correct. The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss international economic and financial issues, and digital public infrastructure is indeed one of India's G-20 priorities.
Answer Key
| 1 - a | 21 - d | 41 - a | 61 - a | 81 - a |
| 2 - b | 22 - a | 42 - b | 62 - c | 82 - b |
| 3 - b | 23 - c | 43 - b | 63 - d | 83 - a |
| 4 - b | 24 - a | 44 - d | 64 - a | 84 - d |
| 5 - d | 25 - b | 45 - d | 65 - c | 85 - c |
| 6 - d | 26 - b | 46 - c | 66 - d | 86 - c |
| 7 - c | 27 - c | 47 - b | 67 - a | 87 - c |
| 8 - a | 28 - c | 48 - a | 68 - c | 88 - d |
| 9 - d | 29 - b | 49 - c | 69 - a | 89 - a |
| 10 - d | 30 - c | 50 - d | 70 - a | 90 - d |
| 11 - c | 31 - c | 51 - b | 71 - b | 91 - b |
| 12 - c | 32 - a | 52 - c | 72 - c | 92 - b |
| 13 - a | 33 - c | 53 - a | 73 - d | 93 - d |
| 14 - b | 34 - a | 54 - c | 74 - b | 94 - c |
| 15 - c | 35 - a | 55 - b | 75 - d | 95 - b |
| 16 - d | 36 - d | 56 - d | 76 - c | 96 - b |
| 17 - a | 37 - a | 57 - d | 77 - b | 97 - d |
| 18 - c | 38 - c | 58 - d | 78 - d | 98 - d |
| 19 - b | 39 - b | 59 - c | 79 - c | 99 - c |
| 20 - c | 40 - c | 60 - c | 80 - a | 100 - c |
